Norway: literally occupied by the Nazis.
Spain: ran by a Nazi-sympathetic fascist at the time.
Ireland: newly formed Republic that was imprisoned via colonial occupation and civil war and didn’t really have any direct skin in the game.
Norway: literally occupied by the Nazis.
Spain: ran by a Nazi-sympathetic fascist at the time.
Ireland: newly formed Republic that was imprisoned via colonial occupation and civil war and didn’t really have any direct skin in the game.
So how would non-neutrality be defined at that point then? Just preemptive invasions? Axis Powers would be the only non-neutral countries in the war.
To be as charitable as possible, it is possible for her interpretation of non-neutrality to cover any country that joined the war without or before being invaded. So for instance the Commonwealth states, France (France leaning towards neutrality of course since they did get invaded later) and the US would be not-neutral, as would countries like Mexico and Brazil. Of course this definition means that neutral countries would include Poland, the Soviet Union, Yugoslavia, Czechoslovakia, and China. And if your definition of “Neutral in WW2” list has China and the Soviet Union in it, it’s useless.
Even if that were the argument, US would be neutral. It only declared war after Japan attacked. It’s a stupid argument but thanks for reconstructing it.
I guess I subconsciously didn’t count Pearl Harbor as an invasion. But you’re right. The US would be added to the list of neutral nations. Leaving the list of “Neutral nations” even more ridiculous.