It wasn’t condemned, really? I’d like a source on that please. From what I’ve read, sexual pederasty was considered an obscene transgression. The relationship was not meant to be sexual though child abuse did happen.

Is that really so hard to believe? I mean, ancient Greek society thought little of women and thought even less of men “who took on the women’s role” so why would Greek parents send off their boys to be violated? The Greeks also greatly valued sexual temperance and monogamy so I’m pretty sure they wouldn’t want men acting like satyrs with their sons.