alt text
three rows with a barbecue on the left and William Wallace in Braveheart on the right.
In the first row, captioned Wednesday, the barbecue is labelled “$899.99” and Wallace says “hold”.
The second row, captioned Thursday, depicts the same.
In the third row, captioned Black Friday, the there is a label with $1099.99 struck through with “$899.99” written underneath, and Wallace charges.
edit: grammar
That’s why I live in the EU, and they have to include the lowest price in the last 30 days with the “discount” price.
That’s a strange reason to live in the EU.
There’s many, many good reasons to live in the EU, fam.
Yeah, I’d rather live there for the healthcare, education and public infrastructure.
I’m in the EU and have never heard of this
It’s a relatively new (became applicable in 2022) thing called price indication directive. The TLDR is what the other guy said, the only addition is that member states can set different rules for certain goods.
Wouldn’t a loophole be to relist something to include some extra trinket with the main product (e.g. lens cleaner with a camera) and argue the “new” listing is something completely different than before?
Or raise the price 31 days prior, and “drastically discount” it after. It seems like a cool policy in theory, but it also sounds like it doesn’t really have any teeth. Like a “political theater” kind of law. But who’s to say, maybe it could be someone’s poli-sci thesis some day.
Or I’m just dumb and don’t understand something fundamental about it; I also except that
It seems like a difficult thing to regulate. I hope that this can be a starting point that will be potentially expanded later as needed, but we’ll see.
Yes, have worked in the field, can confirm.
https://eur-lex.europa.eu/eli/dir/2019/2161/oj
So if you raise the price 31 days prior, and then put the discount on, you should still be good to squeeze more profit!
You would not gain a profit for 30 days with such high prices.
Maybe the 30 day decrease in profit would be worth the additional units sold later (possibly at a slightly elevated price), due to the marketing of a perceived “deal”.
I guess there’s a lot of variables that could come into play (type of product, inventory, how many units need to sell over a time period to break even, etc), but it doesn’t seem implausible, so much as it does dependent. But idk, I still can’t figure out how the fuck magnets work, let alone accounting