This thread began with the hypothesis that there are no Ukrainians in Ukraine and that all Ukrainians are just fascist Russians elevating a “Dialect” to a language because they hate communism.
To my knowledge, Ukrainian split from old Ruthenian in the 13th and was acknowledged as its own language in the 1840s, way before any communist states arose in Russia or the Ukraine.
Alexander II. even outlawed the language in Ukraine.
So, enlightened person, tell me what part of this is just “librul smorm”.
You can’t even write a coherent sentence and you want me to respond to your incoherent smarmy shit.
What premise are you asking me to defend as if it’s my own opinion?
Brother.
This thread began with the hypothesis that there are no Ukrainians in Ukraine and that all Ukrainians are just fascist Russians elevating a “Dialect” to a language because they hate communism.
To my knowledge, Ukrainian split from old Ruthenian in the 13th and was acknowledged as its own language in the 1840s, way before any communist states arose in Russia or the Ukraine.
Alexander II. even outlawed the language in Ukraine.
So, enlightened person, tell me what part of this is just “librul smorm”.